ANALYSIS OF CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT, 2019: A DICHOTOMY OF CONSUMER’S AND SELLER’S RIGHTS - The Daily Guardian
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ANALYSIS OF CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT, 2019: A DICHOTOMY OF CONSUMER’S AND SELLER’S RIGHTS

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Introduction:

In the past decade due to the globalization and dynamic character of the market, relations between consumers and sellers have changed multi-fold. In the digital age, the E-Commerce market has eclipsed the traditional market to a reasonable extent. Thus, in the revolution brought by digitalisation Application of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 encountered many challenges and needed immediate attention. The legislation brought drastic changes and introduced Consumer Protection Act, 2019 which came into effect from 20th July, 2020. The new act aims to strengthen the scope of protection and enhance the rights provided by the virtue of previous legislation.

KEY CHANGES:

1. Application of provisions to e-commerce

The defence that e-commerce sector is merely a ‘platform’ or aggregator’ will not be accepted. All the rules and regulations which were earlier applicable to the direct selling market in India are now extended to the e-commerce sector by the virtue of new act. ‘E-Commerce’ has been defined under Section 2(16) of Act as “Buying or selling of goods or services including digital product over digital and electronic market.”

The guidelines make it compulsory for E-Business to disclose the seller’s details and policies regarding refund, return, delivery, shipment, warranty and guarantee. This is a paramount step as under the realm of digital marketing companies will be penalised for trading in defective goods and indulging in deficient services provided on online platform.

2. Extension of pecuniary jurisdiction

One of the major changes brought in by the Act of 2019 includes an extension of pecuniary Jurisdiction for all three adjudicating forums. By the virtue of Section 34 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 the District Commission can now entertain the complaints up to Rs. 1 Crore, which earlier was restricted to Rs. 20 Lakh. Similarly, as per Section 47, the State Commission will now have jurisdiction over the complaints which exceeds Rs. 1 Crore but under the value of Rs. 10 Crore. Pecuniary Jurisdiction of National Commission is extended to complaints whose value exceeds Rs. 10 Crore as per Section 58 of the Act.

3. Extension of territorial jurisdiction

Previously, the consumer had to file a complaint only in the Consumer Courts where seller’s office was located or where he resides or where cause of action has arisen. This provision has now been expanded and it empowers the consumer to file a complaint in the consumer court where he resides of work. This expansion of territorial jurisdiction is an evidence of the objective of the act which is protection of the interest of consumers.

4.Product liability

Consumer Protection Act, 2019 not only protects the interest of the consumers at the time of exchange of goods and services but also from the aftermath of the same. Manufacturers or service providers would now be made liable for any harm, injury or loss suffered due to defective product or deficient service provided by them.

5. Central regulator

The Act provides for establishment of The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) which would address issues related to consumer rights, unfair trade practices or misleading advertisements. CCPA has the power to impose, on the endorser or manufacturer a imprisonment up to 2 years for misleading and deceptive advertisement. Repeated offence may attract a fine of Rs. 50 Lakhs and imprisonment up to 5 years.

6.Alternative dispute resolution

Section 37(2) of the act provides that the parties can go for the mediation for resolution of disputes between them. This process is voluntary and non-binding on the parties. For the purpose of said provisions the Consumer Mediation Cell (CMC) will be attached at District, State and National level.

CONFLICT OF INTERESTS

The legislature must take note that while protecting the interest of one party the rights of other should not be violated. New Consumer Protection Act, 2019 gives certain rights to the consumers but the liabilities of seller’s are expanded more than what was necessary. Number of Penalties against the sellers under this act has increased drastically. Moreover, the number of penal provisions has also been increased in the current act. This includes extension in the term of imprisonment as well as increase in the value of fine imposed. These provisions are in conflict with the concept of Equity before law and creates a disbalance of rights and liabilities between sellers and consumers.

Sellers should not be kept devoid of their basic rights. One such right violated is right to fair trial.

Transfer of case: Provision has also been included by the virtue of section 48 in the new Consumer Protection Act, 2019. In contrast with Transfer of case provisions mentioned under other statutory laws, section 48 of the act provides only the complainant to file for the transfer of case and bars the locus standi of seller to approach the court for the said reason.

In Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 sections 406, 407 & 408 deals with Transfer of Case. In all the three provisions every party interested is allowed to apply for transfer of case. Even in Civil Procedure Code under section 25 both the parties are allowed to apply for transfer of case.

Transfer of case provision is a way to ensure the litigant parties that for legislature the interest of justice is given supremacy even if it means change of adjudicating forum. Therefore, I believe ousting the Jurisdiction of Respondent to apply for transfer of case is violating of principle of equity and Right to fair trial.

Further, The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is empowered to impose penalties on the manufacturers and seller’s for misleading advertisement. The appeal against such order can be made only under National Commission. The grounds for such appeal are not clear which leaves seller’s and legal fraternity in disarray.

WAY FORWARD

Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is revolutionary legislation that will bring numerous reforms in consumer rights. It includes certain provisions that are need of the hour in era of digitalisation like E-Filling, proceedings through Video Conferencing and inclusion of E-Commerce in the realm of Consumer Laws.

Though these provisions are in consonance with the objective of the act that is protection of interest of consumer, but the legislature should also understand that their giving rights to one may not result in the violation of another’s rights. As stated in the terms of Economics the best position of Market is Considered when there is an equilibrium. Similarly, the legislature should also maintain an equilibrium of the rights and liabilities between Sellers and Consumers while formulating laws for Consumer Protection.

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No need for a NOC to transfer flats built on land leased to the developer: SC

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Supreme Court

The Maharashtra government cannot require a “no objection certificate” from the collector in order to register the transfer of flats in cooperative societies built on land not provided directly by the state, the Supreme Court ruled last week.

The Court was hearing a petition filed by the state government challenging a decision issued by the Bombay High Court on September 29, 2009, which held that the state could not insist on payment of a premium and the issuance of a NOC for registering the transfer of plots when there is clear evidence that the land was allotted first to builders who built flats and then sold it to purchasers. Following that, the owners formed a cooperative society.

The HC decision was based on a petition filed by Aspi Chinoy, a senior advocate in Mumbai, and the Cuffe Parade Residents Association, who were residents of the 22-story Jolly Maker Apartments.

The top court bench of justices BR Gavai and BV Nagarathna dismissed the state’s appeal on Friday, “Since the land was not allotted to a society but to a builder on lease, who has constructed flats for private individuals, who have subsequently formed a Cooperative Society, the 1983 Resolution and 1999 Resolution would not be applicable to the members of such a society.”

The state had relied on two resolutions, dated May 12, 1983 and July 9, 1999, to levy a premium as a condition for granting permission for flat transfers.

The Resolution of 1983 provided for the grant of land at reduced rates to various categories of co-operative societies.

Following the 1983 Resolution, the government issued a modified resolution in 1999 that applied to co-operative societies to whom government lands were sanctioned at reduced rates.

Chinoy had approached the HC, questioning the resolutions’ relevance to their plot. He had challenged the collector’s letter of June 27, 2000 to the sub-registrar, Bombay City, Old Custom House, directing him not to register any transaction involving the transfer of flats in the buildings located in B.B.R. Block Nos. 3 and 5, Nariman Point and Cuffe Parade, Bombay, without first obtaining a NOC from the collector.

According to the residents, their building dates back to 1971, when the state government solicited bids for the lease of Plot Nos.93, 94, 99, 100, and 121 from Block V Back Bay Reclamation Estate. In response to the notice, M/s. Aesthetic Builders Pvt. Ltd. successfully won the bid and completed the construction of flats. On December 12, 1975, the building’s occupancy certificate was issued. Two years later, the owners established the Varuna Premises Cooperative Society Limited.

The bench said, “The present case is not a case where the land is allotted to a co-operative society by the government. The land was leased out to the builder, who was the successful bidder and after the ownership of flats was transferred to the private individuals, a society of the flat owners was formed.” The judges also lifted the stay on the refund order issued by the Supreme Court.

Chinoy claimed that the flat in which he lives was first sold to A Madhavan in 1972 and then to Reshmidevi Agarwal in 1978.

Chinoy then entered the picture by signing an agreement with Agarwal in December 2020 in exchange for five shares in the society.

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Seeking centre’s response on plea for digitisation of medico-legal documents: Madras High Court

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The Madras High Court in the case Dr. Mohamed Khader Meeran A.S v. State of Tamil Nadu observed and has recently sought the response of the Central and the State government on a plea seeking computerisation of medical records having legal importance, including postmortem report, injury report/ accident, etc.
The bench comprising of Chief Justice T Raja and Justice D Krishnakumar heard the case.
It was submitted by the petitioner, Dr Mohammed Khader Meeran that Medico Legal Examination and Postmortem Reporting (MedLeaPR) is a software developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) to issue various medico-legal reports and certificates digitally and to store the data in cloud storage in the encrypted form. Presently, the software is being used by many states and union territories in the country.
It was also directed by Madras High Court to implement this software in the state of Tamil Nadu by January 1st 2021. Thus, even though more than an year has passed, no effort has been made by any authority to implement the same, it was averred. The petitioner added that there is no standard proforma that exists in the State.
It was also contended by him that the present proforma is not at all at par with the standards prescribed by the Supreme Court in the case Samira Kohli Vs Dr. Prabha Manchanda And Anr., Civil Appeal No.1949 of 2004.
Further, the petitioner also submitted that documents like Injury Report, Post-Mortem Report (including viscera/chemical analysis report), report of examination after Sexual assault, age estimation reports have legal importance. However, if these are computerised, it would increase the efficiency of hospital administration, governments and the judiciary also.
The petitioner seek directions from the court to implement this software in all the Government hospitals.

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Bail can’t be cancelled without giving notice to accused, giving him an opportunity of being heard: Allahabad High Court

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The Allahabad High Court in the case Rajendra Kumar and 2 Others v. State Of U.P. Thru Prin Secy Home And Another observed that the cancellation of bail cannot be done without giving notice to the accused and giving him an opportunity of being heard.
The bench comprising of Justice Ajai Kumar Srivastava-I observed and has set aside the order of the Sessions Judge, Raebareli cancelling the bail granted earlier to Rajendra Kumar and 2 others in connection with a criminal case.
It was noted by the High Court that the impugned order cancelling the bail was passed without issuing notice to the accused/applicants and without affording them a reasonable and sufficient opportunity of hearing and the same was patently illegal being in flagrant violation of the rulings of the Supreme Court.
With this regard, it was also referred by the court to Apex Court’s rulings in the cases of Samarendra Nath Bhattacharjee vs. State of W.B. and another case of (2004) 11 SCC 165, Mehboob Dawood Shaikh vs. State of Maharashtra (2004) 2 SCC 362, and the case P.K. Shaji alias Thammanam Shaji vs. State of Kerala.
In the present case the accused/applicants were granted bail vide by the Sessions Judge, Raebareli on November 22, 2021. Later, the court was informed that the accused allegedly threatened the witnesses and the complainant to desist from prosecuting the case after being granted bail.
The court finds that the aforesaid conduct of the applicants was violative of the conditions of bail subject to which they were enlarged on bail, it has been directed by the trial court that the applicants be taken into custody and also passed the impugned order cancelling the bail granted to the applicants.
The Applicant challenging the order, moved the Court arguing that in this case and their bail was cancelled without giving them any opportunity of being heard.
The court noted that it is a settled law that once bail has been granted by a competent court after due consideration of the facts and circumstances of the case and the same should not be cancelled in a mechanical manner without there being any supervening circumstance(s) which are not conducive to the fair trial.
However, it was not made clear by the court that trial court would be at liberty to issue notice to the applicants stating therein the grounds which are to be considered by it for cancellation of bail being granted to the applicants.

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Dispute Of Unregistered Partnership Firm Can Be Referred To Arbitration, Bar U/S 69 Partnership Act Not Applicable

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The Calcutta High Court in the case Md. Wasim and Another v. M/S Bengal Refrigeration and Company and Others observed while hearing an application filed under Section 11 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (‘Arbitration Act’) for appointment of an arbitrator to resolve the dispute between the parties, wherein it was held that the bars for instituting a suit or any other proceeding under Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 (‘Partnership Act’) shall not be applicable to arbitral proceedings under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act.
The present case of the applicants was that, although unregistered, a partnership deed was executed between the applicants and the respondents containing an Arbitration Clause mandating the referral of all disputes and questions to a person who ahs been appointed unanimously to act as an arbitrator.
However, a dispute arose between the parties, subsequent to which, the applicants sent a notice to the respondents invoking the arbitration clause and proposing the name of an advocate as sole arbitrator to resolve the dispute. The respondent denied the appointment of an arbitrator alleging that the allegations raised by the applicants in their initial notice were false. The applicants filed the application under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act for appointment of an arbitrator, aggrieved in these circumstances,
The application was filled by the applicants and it was argued by the respondents that since the partnership firm was ‘unregistered,’ the dispute could not be referred to an arbitrator in view of the application of and the bar created by Section 69 of the Partnership Act, 1932. Further, their case was that since sub-sections (1) and (2) read with sub-section (3) of Section 69 of the Partnership Act restrict the filing of suit by any person as a partner of an unregistered firm including by means of a claim under ‘other proceedings,’ the appointment of an arbitrator could not be seek by the applicant, the partnership deed in their case being ‘unregistered.’
It was observed that Chief Justice Prakash Shrivastava relied on the Supreme Court decision in Umesh Goel v. Himachal Pradesh Cooperative Group Housing Society Limited and on the Madras High Court decision in the case M/s. Jayamurugan Granite Exports v. M/s. SQNY Granites, wherein both of which held that arbitral proceedings shall not come under the expression ‘other proceedings’ of Section 69(3) of the Partnership Act, 1932 and that the ban imposed under Section 69 can have no application to arbitration proceedings and as well of the arbitral award under Section 11 of the Arbitration Act.
Accordingly, it was held by the Calcutta High Court that non-registration of the partnership firm would not attract the bar under Section 69 of the Partnership Act, so far as institution of proceedings as stated under the provision of Section 11 of the Arbitration Act is concerned.

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Supreme Court: Terms Of Invitation To Tender Are Not Open To Judiciary Scrutiny Unless They Are Arbitrary, Discriminatory Or Mala Fide

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Supreme Court

The Supreme Court in the case Airports Authority of India versus Centre for Aviation Policy observed that the terms of invitation to tender are not open to judicial scrutiny, the top court has set aside a Delhi High Court’s order which had quashed the Airport Authority of India’s tender conditions for selecting Ground Handling Agencies (GHA) agencies at Group D Airports.
The bench comprising of Justice MR Shah and the Justice Krishna Murari observed and has stated that the Delhi High Court committed a “serious error” by entertaining a writ petition at the instance of a third party- an group of advocacy called Centre For Aviation Policy -when none of the GHAs challenging the tender conditions. Thus, the writ petition should have been dismissed on the ground of locus standi (Airports Authority of India versus Centre for Aviation Policy).
The court observed that in view of the matter, it is not appreciable how respondent No.1 (CAPSR) – original writ petitioner being an NGO would have any locus standi to maintain the writ petition, wherein challenging the tender conditions in the respective RFPs. Respondent No.1 cannot be said to be an aggrieved party in the case.
The Court stated that the even on merits, the High Court should not have interfered with the tender conditions, observed the Supreme Court. While referring to various precedents regarding limited scope of judicial interference in tender conditions
Further, the court stated that as per the settled position of law, the terms and conditions of the Invitation to Tender are within the domain of the tenderer/tender making authority and are not open to judicial scrutiny, unless they are arbitrary, discriminatory or mala fide and as per the settled position of law, the terms of the Invitation to Tender are not being open to judicial scrutiny and the same being in the realm of the contract. The Government/tender/tenderer making authority must have a free hand in setting the terms of the tender.
The bench observed and has stated that the court cannot interfere with the terms of the tender prescribed by the Government because it feels that some other terms in the tender would have been wiser, fair, or logical.
It was observed that the AAI approached the Supreme Court against the order of the High Court dated July 14, 2021, by which it has allowed the said writ petition of the NGO and has struck down the decision to carry out region-wise sub-categorisation of the 49 airports falling under Group D-1 and the stipulation that only the previous work experience in respect of providing the GHS to scheduled aircrafts shall be considered and will be acceptable. It was also found by the High Court that the revised minimum Annual Turnover criteria of INR 18 crores as discriminatory and arbitrary.
Accordingly, the Supreme Court noted that the AAI explained before the High Court the rationale behind the respective conditions, namely, clustering of 49 airports into 4 region-wise sub-categories/clusters; criteria for evaluation of 36 months having experience in the past 7 years in providing 3 out of 7 Core GHS and the financial capacity and an Annual Turnover of Rs. 30 crores (modified as Rs. 18 crores) in any of the one of last three financial years.
The court stated that while having gone through the respective clauses/conditions which are held to be arbitrary and illegal by the High Court, the court is of the opinion that the same cannot be said to be malafide or/ arbitrary and/or actuated by bias. However, it was for the AAI to decide its own terms and fix the eligibility criteria.

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Court sends Waqf Board scam co-accused to 14 day judicial custody

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A Delhi court on Monday remanded Kausar Imran Siddiqui alias Laddan, co-accused in Delhi Waqf board scam case, to 14 days custody.  

AAP MLA Amanatullah Khan is the primary accused in the case and is out on bail. The Anti-Corruption Bureau (ACB) has stated that Laddan is a fund manager for Khan. The Duty Sessions Judge at Rouse Avenue Court also expressed its displeasure over the non-presence of ACB on the previous date.  

ACB had submitted to the court Ladan’s “handwriting sample” and sought 7 days of custody for him.

The court observed that the agency had not given any reasonable answer for its absence on previous occasion. Thereafter, he was sent to 14 day judicial custody.

AAP MLA was arrested for alleged irregularities in appointment in Delhi Waqf Board during his chairmanship.
Accused Kausar Imran Siddiqui alias Laddan was produced on a production warrant before the court on 27th September. He was interrogated and arrested with the permission of the court.

Laddan’s name came into the frame, when additional public prosecutor Anil Srivastava opposed Khan’s bail plea. He stated that a diary was recovered from Ladan’s house.  It was alleged that he was Khan’s fund manager.  Earlier, the (ACB) had said that money was sent to Dubai and other money transactions need to be investigated. It also stated that a large amount of money was transferred to a party via Dubai. There were 100 people who either received or paid money to Laddan. Out of these 37 people have transactions of crores of rupees.                                                                                                                                                                          

This diary also has an entry about one Zeeshan Haider, who received crores of rupees. He is also a close associate of the accused, ACB had argued. The ACB has also submitted that Laddan is a nominated functionary of a political party. He has photographs with the accused during an iftar party. Additionally, 14 crores sale deed is recovered, which is said to be a ‘Benami property’.

Previously, Ladan was in judicial custody in another case lodged at Jamia Nagar police station. He was arrested from Telangana.

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